Here is a situation:
Mr A's car is damaged by Mr B's car and Mr A claims against Mr B's insurer.
Five months later Mr A sells his car, damage and all.
Eleven months later Mr A's insurer's solicitor asks for repair quotes to present to Mr B's insurer.
My question is this:
What can Mr A expect from Mr B's insurer, seeing as he no longer owns the damaged car?
Apart from 'nothing'! Is there any kind of 'usual procedure' for this situation? Any experience of similar?
Sorry for a lengthy first post.
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You did get quotes for the repair?
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At the time, no. Mr.A has obtained a quote based on a book average for the type of work, though.
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Do you know who bought it ? Can you get either the cost of repairs from themor some statement about how much less they paid for the car because it was damaged ?
Any particular reason why you didn't get any estimate for repair to the car ? Surely you must have at least been curious ? Did any garage look at it, even if they didn't give an estimate ?
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Surely it's all over for Mr A as he's sold the car? If he wanted insurane compensation he shouldn't have done so while the claim was still pending. There's now no car to value or value the damage to. How can the insurer decide how much it might pay?
Never thought I'd find myself 'on the side of' a motor insurer....
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He was a bit silly to sell the car with an outstanding, unresolved motor claim. Why didn't he try to finalise this before selling the car?
Did he inform Mr B's insurers he was going to sell the car?
If not, why not?
Was there much or very little damage?
Has he suffered a verifiable loss on the sale value of the vehicle?
Did he decide to waive any claim but is now re-thinking the matter?
Is this just a 'hypothetical' situation?
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