I am new to this forum and apologise if this has been discussed before. Earlier posts have covered aspects of motability (including eligibility) but not this I believe.

My nephew is disabled, cannot drive and has a motablity car. His wife is the appointed driver. They expected to be able to use the vehicle as the family car, eg. she takes the children to school, goes shopping, takes children to doctor, evening activities, seaside etc, goes to library etc.

However, he signed a Statement of Responsibilities which includes the sentence 'The car will only be used for the benefit of the disabled customer' Note the 'only' ie for no other purpose.

So which of the above is for his benefit - children to school - doubtful; going shopping - probably; going to seaside if he is not with them - doubtfull, although it does get them out of his hair; etc, etc.

But nowhere is this explained, so how are they supposed to know and what should they do about it ? If the car is used for a purpose not for his benefit is she committing an offence ? Is there any point in having the car, should they just buy one and put his mobility allowance towards it ? What do others do I wonder.