HI, i am a part time motor sole dealer and i sold a car to a woman who after two months sent me a letter saying she had been onto trading standards who told her she could reject the car i sold to her for a full refund...

on the grounds that the exhaust was leaking to a point where driving it made her ill and so "not fit for porpose". Her rejection letter said that she paid some one £100 to fix the exhaust but bacause there was a fault she wanted a refund (the car was a 16 year old clio sold for £450 with full MOT), her letter stated that she had already paid £100 to fix the exhaust so it must now be ok and fit for purpose so a full refund would not be expected but i offered £50 as a good will gesture, even though on trading standards web site it states you should take into account the age and wear and tear of a car (exhaust systems are considered wear and tear items)

She rejected my offer saying she would report me to trading standards...

I noticed a few weeks later an ad in one of the local rags for a clio that sounded very similar to the one i sold, it was up for £400. I called the number and it was the lady i had sold my one to and was told it had sold. I thought that woud be the end of the matter.

3 days later(today) i received a letter saying that the car will need £1000 spent on it to put right as amongst other things the engine was dead and is now deemed unrepairable, the mileage has been clocked and she wants £350 back. She had spoken to trading standards customer service who told her to take me to the small claims court.

I asked my wife called the advert again as a prospective buyer to see if the car had been returned due to these catastrophic faults but she was told "sorry the car has sold" she asked just out of interest how much did it go for... "£350".

She bought a car for £450, sold it for £350 and still wants £350 from me as compensation.

On trading standards web site it states that you should give the dealer the oppertunity to fix any faults at minimal cost, she did not with the exhaust.

It states if you reject a car on the grounds of not being fix for purpose you should stop using it. I photographed it had moved on 3 occasions.

There is no defined time limit in which to reject a car but having checked a few sites 2 to 4 weeks seems the acceptable time. NOT 2 MONTHS

It seems that she intends to profit from her purchase as well as having 2 months free motoring?

When she bought the car she stated that she hadn't driven for a while as she was restricted due to medication but she couldn't do without a car so decided to stop taking the meds so she could drive, obviously against her gp's instructions.

I am guessing not taking her meds made her ill and is seeking to get her money back plus a bit???

Any advice would be appreciated.